05/12/2025
Verse 11
In whom ye were also circumcised with a circumcision not made with hands, in the putting off of the body of flesh, in the circumcision of Christ.
Circumcision not made with hands … The reference to baptism in the next verse has sent some of the commentators into orbit, alleging all kinds of wild speculations designed to eliminate Christian baptism as the gateway to all "spiritual blessings in Christ." It is refreshing to find Ellis cutting the bud out of such notions with the following:
There is no direct analogy between Christian baptism and the "old age" rite of circumcision. Circumcision here is the death of Christ (clearly a metaphorical reference — JBC), by which he wrought severance from the old age, cleansing from sin, and reconciliation to God.(F35)
If circumcision should be made a type of baptism, then only men could be baptized; it would have to take place on the eighth day of their lives; there could be no prior conditions such as faith, repentance or confession; and it could be received only by those already in covenant relationship with the Lord; and how could that be applied to an eight-day-old infant?
The obvious reference to the death of Christ (which was the metaphorical circumcision referred to) in this verse naturally raised the question in Paul's thought of just how men are enabled to participate in the death of Christ, share its benefits, and receive its blessings. That prompted the immediate reference to baptism. (Compare with Romans 6:3-5).
THE CIRCUMCISION IN CHRIST
Colossians 2:11 is more easily understood if the intermediate phrases are omitted from the principal statement in the passage which is:
"In whom (Christ) we were also circumcised … in the circumcision of Christ."
The Christian is dead "in Christ." "If one died for all, then all died" (2 Corinthians 5:14). This means that the penalty of death (due to all sin) was paid by Christ who died for all. As members of his "spiritual body," Christians are, in a genuine sense "in him," identified with him, and as Christ they are dead, having been crucified with him, a status they received when they were baptized into his death."
Christians are also "perfect" in Christ (Colossians 1:28-29). This perfection, like his death, belongs to Christians, not through achievement by themselves, but through their status "in Christ."
Exactly the same is true of the circumcision mentioned here. "In Christ," Christians were not merely "circumcised"; but they also kept perfectly the entire Law of Moses, not by actually observing all those regulations, but by being "in Christ," totally identified with him, being actually his "spiritual body." All of this is plainly said when Colossians 2:11 is read without the descriptive phrases. Our circumcision is "in the circumcision of Christ."
See my Commentary on Romans, Romans 4:11 for more on circumcision.
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Verse 12
Having been buried with him in baptism, wherein ye were also raised with him through faith in the working of God, who raised him from the dead.
Buried with him in baptism … Note that nothing is said here of baptism being accomplished without human hands, the same being an obvious impossibility. Note too that there is here the plainest reference to immersion as the action recognized by the apostles as being required in the baptism commanded by Christ. One may read bales of sophistry on this subject, but the simple truth is easy to see. See the parallel Pauline reference in Romans 6:3-5, together with comments in my Commentary on Romans.
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Verse 13
And you, being dead through your trespasses and the uncircumcision of your flesh, you, I say, did he make alive together with him, having forgiven us all our trespasses.
Trespasses and the uncircumcision of your flesh … The deadness indicated by this denotes the pre-conversion, or unregenerated state of Christians before they became followers of Christ. Such deadness was often spoken of by the apostles in reference to the unbaptized. Such deadness, however, upon their conversion, was followed by the new life in Christ.
You did he make alive … When does the new life come to the Christian? Fortunately, we do not need to rely upon human opinion regarding so important a question as this. Note the following:
We were buried therefore with him through baptism into death that like as Christ was raised from the dead through the glory of the Father, so we also might walk in newness of life (Romans 6:4).
Wherefore if any man be in Christ, he is a new creature; the old things are passed away (2 Corinthians 5:17).
Even in the sequence of verses before us, baptism is mentioned in Colossians 2:12 and the being made alive in the next verse, where it logically belongs. Before leaving these three verses, it is proper to note certain widespread, persistent and stridently vocal errors regarding what the New Testament says concerning Christian baptism, or rather, what it does NOT say! Nowhere in the New Testament is it declared that:
Baptism is a symbol
Baptism is a token
Baptism is a type
Baptism is a figure
Baptism is a sign
Baptism is an outward sign
Baptism is optional
Baptism is unessential
Baptism is unnecessary
Baptism is a physical action alone.
In these studies, the old cliche that "Baptism is the outward sign of an inward grace," if encountered once, has been encountered a hundred times; but it is not, in any sense, true. In the New Testament, baptism is said to be the reality of which even the salvation of Noah and his family was only "the figure" (1 Peter 3:21).
Furthermore, it is a gross error to suppose that baptism in any true sense whatever is accomplished without the existence of the prior conditions of faith, repentance and confession. One is surprised that even Lipscomb would declare that "Baptism avails nothing without faith."(F36) Without faith, no one was ever baptized, although of course he might have been wet. Although it is correct to say that "Immersion avails nothing without faith," which is presumably what Lipscomb meant, the distinction should be made clear to all. It is feared that many have misunderstood the true teaching on this question, which in no sense whatever would substitute immersion for faith as a prior condition of membership in Christ's kingdom, but which requires of all who would be saved that they "believe, repent and be baptized" in order to be saved. This is what Christ commanded when he said, "He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved." This distinction between "immersed" and "baptized" may appear too finely drawn to some; and it is freely admitted that there is a sense in which the words mean exactly the same thing; but baptism as compliance with the prior conditions of redemption "in Christ" is never accomplished except with the prior conditions of faith and repentance having already appeared in the candidate's heart before he is immersed, that is, before he can be baptized.
Having forgiven us all our trespasses.. "This is, of course, a reference to the forgiveness of all the old sins of which the believer was guilty at the time of his conversion. The apostle Peter mentioned this "cleansing from his old sins" in 2 Peter 1:9. Sins committed after one has become a Christian are forgiven upon the conditions of repentance and prayer of the Christian.
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Verse 14
Having blotted out the bond written in ordinances that was against us, which was contrary to us: and he hath taken it out of the way, nailing it to the cross.
Bond written in ordinances … This is a reference to the Decalogue and to the entire Law of Moses. Widespread denial of this is ill-founded and inaccurate. Peake's skilled exegesis on this question is pertinent:
Distinction between moral and ceremonial Law has no meaning in Paul. The Law is a unity and is done away as a whole. For Paul, the hostile character of the Law is peculiarly associated with the moral side of it. The Law which slew him is represented by the 10th Commandment, and the ministry of death was engraved on tables of stone?(F37)
Written in ordinances … as in this verse, signifies the tables of stone inscribed by the finger of God. As Wallace pointed out, it is deplorable that "By omission of `handwriting of ordinances' the revisionists break this connection."(F38) The words certainly belong as a sure testimony that the Decalogue is here indicated.
Taken it out of the way … nailing it to the cross … These terms indicate the absolute cancellation and abrogation of the Law of Moses. Also, the fact should not be lost sight of that the heresy at Colossae was deeply involved with the Law of Moses, practically all of this chapter being particularly applicable to it.
The special application of this verse, as inclusive of the moral part of the Law of Moses, was discussed thus by Macknight:
The moral precepts of the Law of Moses are called the Chirograph, or handwriting of ordinances, because the most essential of these precepts were written by the hand of God on two tables of stone; and the rest Moses was directed to write in a book.(F39)
Sabbatarians make two profound mistakes: (1) in their understanding of the sabbath day commandment as in any sense a part of the moral law, and (2) in their insistence that the moral portion of the Law of Moses is still in effect; whereas nothing could be more emphatic than the New Testament declarations that the Law, not part of it, but all of it, has been changed, abrogated, taken away, nailed to the cross, etc.
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Verse 15
Having despoiled the principalities and the powers, he made a show of them openly, triumphing over them in it.
The principalities and the powers … These are understood to be the ranking members of the Jewish hierarchy in Jerusalem, and also inclusive perhaps of the Roman procurator who in Paul's time had already come to receive the eternal infamy of the lines, "Suffered under Pontius Pilate."
Of course, this view is disputed. Peake noted that "almost every word in this verse" is disputed by scholars.(F40) On the identification of "principalities and powers," Nielson thought they were "demonic forces";(F41) Dummelow was sure that "they were the angels who gave the Law";(F42) and Guthrie thought they "were spiritual enemies."(F43)
In it … is also disputed, some thinking it means "in him"; but we shall offer the exegesis on the basis of the translation before us. Here, too, if this is allowed, the antecedent of "it" becomes a factor in the interpretation. Since the overall subject of this whole section is the Law of Moses, we shall take the Law itself as the antecedent of "it," making the passage read that Jesus triumphed "over them in it." The them, of course, as already noted, is seen as reference to the religious and political rulers before whom the ministry and Passion of Jesus were enacted. This interpretation has the great advantage of being backed up by the entire Sermon on the Mount, and by all of those astounding events that frustrated and defeated the hierarchy of Israel.
Jesus Christ took up the great moral commandments of the Decalogue, one at a time, quoted each one, opposed his own authority against it, showing that one could indeed keep every command in the Decalogue and yet remain a scoundrel and a rogue; if there were ever a case of Jesus triumphing over the Pharisees in the Law of Moses, that has to be the time. Furthermore, he triumphed over them in the Law on another salient front. They repeatedly accused him of sabbath-breaking; but Jesus destroyed their sabbath regulations by showing that they were of men and not of the Father; and by the time of the confrontation before Pilate, the Pharisees no longer even alleged that Jesus broke the sabbath. (It is still alleged by some, quite erroneously, that Jesus broke the sabbath "for sufficient cause.")
